I must ask this question immediately after coming to grips with a view of Scripture I have never held before, namely, preterist.
I am currently investigating for myself the claims of such learned men as Don Preston, William Bell, and others on this view. It is worth looking into.
More to come...
1 comment:
Good question..I've asked the same thing. One possible reason is the transistion from the Hebrew/Jewish thought and apocalyptic language used versus pagen Greek and Roman. It would have been up to "gentiles" to begin interpreting what was tradtional Hewbrew thought and writing style.
Another possiblity is that those who wrote the New Testament were taken from the world as was predicted, and that left a period of silence which left the "new way or kingdom" totally dependant on writings that most of the world hadn't recognised as important.
These are just some thoughts and I will continue to study. One thing is certain though, and that is if we consider ourselves Christians, we must honor the time frame Christ put in his statements.
Kerry...Glidt
Post a Comment